Questions in John 1

Brian Leport at Near Emmaus asks some good questions regarding elements of John Chapter 1. Brian writes:

Moses is part of the discussion in John 1. In 1:14 the Logos/Word becomes flesh (σὰρξ ἐγένετο), tabernacles among “us” (Israel? Humanity? ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν), and he seen by the author(s) of the Prologue. John the Baptist is cited as a witness toward Jesus’ exalted status. The community adds their witness as having received Jesus’ “fullness” of grace. Then the author(s) says that Moses gave the Law, but Jesus the Messiah brought grace (ἡ χάρις) and truth (ἡ ἀλήθεια). Does this mean Moses did not bring grace and truth? Is the first part of that combination in need of emphasis, i.e., Moses did bring truth, but not grace?

Although it is true that Moses is mentioned in Chapter 1, I don't think the emphasis is on him. In other Scriptures (1 John 4:12, 1 Timothy 1:17, 1 Timothy 6:16) that talk about not seeing God, there is no mention of Moses and so I think the context is larger than Moses. If John is writing to correct false teachings, then this would imply that someone in the Church at that time was claiming they had seen God. This is the context that we should read verse 18 in. This could tie in with the idea of two Christs, which John rejects by referring to the other Christ as the antichrist.

Furthermore, Moses did bring grace (I prefer the word "favor") but it was favor limited to the Jews. Only the Jews were God's people. Jesus also brought favor and he brought it for the Gentiles too. The emphasis should be on the second part: truth. No one was denying that Jesus brought favor for everyone, but there is evidence that there were those that were saying that Jesus was lying about it. That's why Jesus often says "Truly, truly" or "I tell you the truth".